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What technical limitations caused the '2.5D era' of video games instead of directly moving from 2D to 3D?NEWQ:show
Here Im mostly asking about PC games, as the full 3d era in console gaming was pretty much started with the PS1 launch (December 1994) and the N64 launch (September 1996).
Case in point is two of my favourite games, Star Wars Dark Forces (February 1995), and Dark Forces 2 (October 1997), pretty much the same formula, but totally different technical capabilities.
Dark Forces was solidly lumped in with the Doom era of games, being 2.5D. Basically the environment was 3D, enemies were rendered by a 2d billboard sprite, and for Dooms case, all levels were essentially on a 2D grid, with the appearance of raised ceilings and uneven floors essentially kludged into the engine. Dark Forces slightly expanded on this by somehow adding in the ability to have multiple levels (is it only 2 different vertical levels or more?) and the ability to pan looking up and down (although this again seems to have been a hotfix to an inherent issue in raycasting engines).
So then a little under 3 years later Dark Forces 2 is released by the same publisher, you can do pretty much everything you can in a normal game engine, look in any direction, completely 3d environments, and the graphics still look passable even now.
I get that there are some technical hurdles to cover between 2D games and full 3D, particularly without a graphics card (first hitting the market in 1999) to reduce the performance issues with rendering only what is in view (occlusion I think?). What I dont get is how the technical issues were solved so quickly between 1995 and 1997, and in particular why the 2d grid necessity went away so quickly.
ELI5: When you have a cold, why does your nose stop running while asleep?
Why do big companies have "use it or lose it" budgets? Facilities can end up with hundreds of thousands or millions of dollars that they need to spend by a certain date or their budget will be reduced for the following year. Doesn't this promote frivolous, wasteful spending?NEWQ:show
ELI5: Why do big companies have "use it or lose it" budgets? Facilities can end up with hundreds of thousands or millions of dollars that they need to spend by a certain date or their budget will be reduced for the following year. Doesn't this promote frivolous, wasteful spending?
The way a low-tech contact thermometer works is pretty intuitive, but how can some type of light output detect surface temperature and feed it back to the source in a laser/infrared thermometer?
Edit: 🤯 thanks to everyone for the informative comments and helping to demystify this concept!
When I am nervous I normaly tend to sweat a lot but at the same time I am freezing. I would like to know what is the process that the human body does to reach this situation and how common this might be.
what would happen if money, goods, services, property value just stayed the same? In other words what is the purpose/cause of inflation?NEWQ:show
ELI5: what would happen if money, goods, services, property value just stayed the same? In other words what is the purpose/cause of inflation?
With the new protein fold predicting AI in the news; are there 2 proteins with identical amino acid sequences but different structures that have fundamentally different enzymatic activity or function in the cell?NEWQ:show
With the news of the new DeepMind AI that can accurately predict the 3D-structure of a protein; this got me pondering about environmental factors that influence protein structure (e.g: Salinity, pH, Temperature, etc).
Are there examples of proteins with identical amino acid sequences but have a different 3D-structure and therefore the protein acts entirely differently? i.e: A protein in x-conformation acts as a Kinase in one environment but in y-conformation in another environment it acts as a carboxylase. Are these a result of specialized chaperonins?
I don't necessarily mean a protein that exists in both forms in the same organism, but also 2 different organisms and 2 different functions. Any examples would be amazing.
Edit: Thank you everyone for all your thoughtful and scientific responses.
Is there a risk here for developing an autoimmune disorder where we teach our bodies to target molecules that fit our ACE2 receptors (the key molecules, not the receptors, angiotensin, I think it's called) and inadvertently, this creates some cascade which leads to a cycle of really high blood pressure/ immune system inflammation? Are the coronavirus spikes different enough from our innate enzymes that this risk is really low?
Edit: I added the bit in parentheses, as some ppl thought that I was talking about the receptors themselves, my bad.
Another edit: This is partially coming from a place of already having an autoimmune disorder, I've seen my own body attack cells it isn't supposed to attack. With the talk of expedited trials, I can't help but be a little worried about outcomes that aren't immediately obvious.
How come we can't feel our organs touching each other and moving around but we can feel pain in them when hurt?NEWQ:show
ELI5: How come we can't feel our organs touching each other and moving around but we can feel pain in them when hurt?
Why do joints make a "Cracking" noise for certain activities such as walking up stairs, but have no actual pain associated with them?NEWQ:show
ELI5: Why do joints make a "Cracking" noise for certain activities such as walking up stairs, but have no actual pain associated with them?